Have a question?
Message sent Close

Project Management MGM Quiz When you're Screening

Instructor
John Marsh
0
0 reviews
  • Description
  • Full Document
Blur-Preview

1)  When you’re screening a project for selection an effective model must reflect organization objectives,
including a firm’s strategic goals and mission is called:
A) Realism.
B) Capability.
C) Comparability.
D) Ease of use.

2) Souder’s project screening criterion of realismaddresses the question:
A) How many workers will the project need?
B) Will the project work as intended?
C) Who are the stakeholders?
D) How often should the project team meet?

3) A selection model that is broad enough to be applied to multiple projects has the benefit of:
A) Ease of use.
B) Comparability.
C) Capability.
D) Flexibility.

4) A project screening criterion that allows the company to compare long-term versus short-term projects,
projects with different technologies, and projects with different commercial objectives is:
A) Flexibility.
B) Ease of use.
C) Capability.
D) Realistic.

5) If a model can be applied successfully by people in all areas and levels of an organization, it is said to
possess the trait of:
A) Capability.
B) Ease of use.
C) Flexibility.
D) Realism.

6) An MBA redesign committee plans to spend a decade traveling the world to benchmark graduate
programs at other universities. Regardless of the screening model being used, it will suffer from poor
performance in the area of:
A) flexibility.
B) Capability.
C) Comparability.
D) Cost.

7) Souder’s model selection criterion that encourages ease of adaptation to changes in tax laws, building
codes, among others, is called:
A) Ease of use.
B) Cost.
C) Capability.
D) Flexibility.

8) A writer estimates it will take three months to generate spiffy documents to accompany a seminal work in
operations management. He grossly underestimates the time required and misses his deadline by two
months. This estimate was:
A) Objective and accurate.
B) Subjective and accurate.
C) Objective and inaccurate.
D) Subjective and inaccurate.

9) A wedding planner allows $10,000 for flowers and three weeks to receive all RSVPs back from the list of
700 guests. Both estimates are correct within a fraction of a percent. We could describe this factoid as:
A) Numeric and subjective.
B) Numeric and objective.
C) Non-numeric and subjective.
D) Non-numeric and objective.

10) An internal operating issue in project screening and selection is:
A) Expected return on investment.
B) Change in physical environment.
C) Patent protection.
D) The chance that the firm’s goodwill will suffer due to the quality of the finished project.

11) Quality risk refers to the chance that:
A) The project relies on developing new or untested technologies.
B) The firm’s reputation may suffer when the product becomes available.
C) The well-being of the users or developers may decline dramatically.
D) The firm may face a lawsuit.

12) One facet of risk in project screening is:
A) The change in manufacturing operations resulting from the project.
B) The initial cash outlay.
C) The potential for lawsuits or legal obligation.
D) The strategic fit of the project with the company.

13) One project factor that directly impacts a firm’s internal operations is the:
A) Expected return on investment.
B) Financial risk.
C) Need to develop employees.
D) Impact on company’s image.

14) A commercial factor in project selection and screening might be:
A) A need to develop employees.
B) The likelihood that users of the project are injured.
C) The long-term market dominance.
D) The impact on the company’s image.

15) Which statement regarding project selection model is BEST?
A) Organizational reality can be perfectly captured by most decision-making models.
B) Before selecting any project, the team should identify all the relevant issues that play a role in project
selection.
C) Decision models must contain either objective or subjective factors.
D) Every decision model has both objective and subjective factors.

16) Which statement regarding project selection and screening criteria is BEST?
A) The most complete model in the world is still only a partial reflection of organization reality.
B) It is possible, given enough time and effort, to identify all relevant issues that play a role in project
selection.
C) Decision models are either objective or subjective.
D) For many projects, more than 80% of the decision criteria are vital.

17) A checklist screening model does NOT consider:
A) Whether one criterion is more important than another.
B) Governmental or stakeholder interference.
C) Product durability and future market potential of the product line.
D) The riskiness of the new venture.

18) A simple scoring model for project evaluation requires:
A) Importance weights from 1 to 10 assigned to each criterion.
B) Score values assigned to each criterion in terms of its rating.
C) A division of weights by scores to arrive at a standardized score for each criterion.
D) A summation for each criterion to achieve an overall criterion score.

19) The simple scoring model has this advantage over a checklist model for screening projects.
A) Scaling from 1 to 5 is extremely accurate.
B) Scaling models ensure a reasonable link between the selected and weighted criteria and the business
objectives that motivated their selection.
C) Scaling models allow decision makers to treat one criterion as more important than another.
D) Scaling models have been proven to make correct decisions better than 95% of the time while checklists
only achieve 80% accuracy.

20) A project manager is using a simple scoring model to decide which of four projects is best, given the
company’s limited resources. The criteria, importance weights, and scores for each are shown in the table.
Which project should be chosen?
Project; Criteria; Importance Weight Score

21) A project manager is using a simple scoring model to decide which of four projects is best, given the
company’s limited resources. The criteria, importance weights, and scores for each are shown in the table.
Which project should be chosen?
Project; Criteria; Importance Weight Score

22) A simple scoring model is used to decide among three projects that we’ll call A, B, and C. The total
score for project A is 30, for project B is 20, and for project C is 10. Which of the following statements is
BEST?

23) The pairwise comparison approach:
A) Is a method to split the weights assigned to subcriteria.
B) Is a method to compare pairs of hierarchies prior to any further analysis.
C) Is a means of achieving all project objectives within the allocated time frame.
D) May be used instead of AHP if time is limited.

24) The first step in the Analytical Hierarchy Process:
A) Requires supporting requirements to be combined into Level II challenges.
B) Is analyzing the process you intend to improve before undertaking any improvement project.
C) Requires Saatyfication of the team members.
D) Consists of constructing a hierarchy of criteria and subcriteria.

25) Which statement about the Analytical Hierarchy Process is FALSE?
A) AHP scores are significant.
B) AHP can be used to capture choice options that do not yield positive outcomes.
C) AHP can improve the process of developing project proposals.
D) AHP groups subcriteria that share the weight of a common higher-level criterion.

26) The Analytic Hierarchy Process is being employed in a project selection decision. One major criteria,
cost, receives a weighting value of 40%, which is split into
– short term (50%),
– intermediate term (30%),
– long term (20%).
Which of these statements is BEST?

27) The Analytical Hierarchy Process is used to decide among three projects that we’ll call A, B, and C.
The total score for project A is .650,
project B is .514,
for project C is .321.
Which of the following statements is BEST?

28) The profile model plots a graph on a(n):
A) Perception-reality pair of axes.
B) Risk-return pair of axes.
C) Efficiency-effectiveness pair of axes.
D) Saxon-Norman pair of axes.

29) The efficient frontier in project management is the set of portfolio options that offer:
A) A minimum return for a minimum risk.
B) A minimum return for a maximum risk.
C) A maximum return for a minimum risk.
D) A maximum return for a maximum risk.

30) Which statement about the use of the profile model is BEST?
A) The profile model requires careful calculation of the percentage risk for each possible project.
B) The scale used for the profile model can be any two numerical variables that a company deems
important.
C) The efficient frontier in the profile model is where return is 100% (or greater) and risk is 0%.
D) For a given level of risk, a positive move on the return axes would indicate a superior project.

31) Between projects A and B, project A will be considered a superior financial undertaking if it has:
A) A shorter payback period than project B.
B) A lower average rate of return than project B.
C) A lower net present value than project B.
D) A longer payback period than project B.

32) Net present value is being used to break the tie among four otherwise equal projects.
If the interest rate is 4%, which of these anticipated four-year flows would yield the greatest net present
value?

33) A company facing an interest rate of 8% must choose among projects offering the following four-year
cash flows. If the company is employing the net present value criterion, which project should they choose?

34) Which of these statements about internal rate of return analysis is BEST?
A) If the IRR is less than the company’s required rate of return, the project is worth funding.
B) Projects having lower IRR are generally superior to those having higher IRR.
C) IRR and NPV calculations always make the same investment recommendations.
D) If net outflows follow a period of net inflows, IRR may give conflicting results.

35) Which of these statements about valuation models is NOT correct?
A) NPV employs a weighted average cost of capital discount rate that reflects potential reinvestment.
B) IRR and NPV calculations typically make the same investment recommendations only when the projects
are independent of each other.
C) If cash flows are not normal, IRR may arrive at multiple solutions.
D) IRR is a more robust determinant of project viability than NPV.

36) A project manager is using the internal rate of return method to make the final decision on which project
to undertake. Which of these four projects has the highest internal rate of return?

37) A project manager is using the internal rate of return method to make the final decision on which project
to undertake. Which of these four projects has the highest internal rate of return?

38) A project manager is using the net present value method to make the final decision on which project to
undertake. The company has a 12% required rate of return and expects a 3% rate of inflation for the
following four years. What is the NPV of a project that has cash flows as shown in the table?
Year Cash Flow

39) A project manager is using the payback method to make the final decision on which project to
undertake. The company has a 10% required rate of return and expects a 4% rate of inflation for the
following four years. What is the non-discounted payback of a project that has cash flows as shown in the
table?

40) A project manager is using the payback method to make the final decision on which project to
undertake. The company has a 10% required rate of return and expects a 4% rate of inflation for the
following five years. What is the discounted payback of a project that has cash flows as shown in the table?
Year Cash Flow

41) A project manager is using the net present value method to make the final decision on which project to
undertake. The company has a 15% required rate of return and expects a 5% rate of inflation for the
following four years. What is the NPV of a project that has cash flows as shown in the table?

42) A project manager is using the payback method to make the final decision on which project to
undertake. The company has a 10% required rate of return and expects a 4% rate of inflation for the
following five years. What is the non-discounted payback of a project that has cash flows as shown in the
table?

43) A project manager is using the payback method to make the final decision on which project to
undertake. The company has a 15% required rate of return and expects a 5% rate of inflation for the
following five years. What is the discounted payback of a project that has cash flows as shown in the table?

44) Options models are used to assist in project selection decisions:
A) When IRR calculations are favorable but NPV calculations are unfavorable.
B) When a company may not recover the money it invests in a project.
C) When NPV calculations are favorable but IRR calculations are unfavorable.
D) When a company is guaranteed to recover the money it invests in a project.

45) Regardless of which selection method a firm uses, it should always:
A) Be able to predict how much revenue will be returned to the firm each year.
B) Know which project will ultimately succeed and which ones will fail.
C) Be objective in their selection method.
D) Use a weighted scoring technique.

46) The systematic process of selecting, supporting, and managing a firm’s collection of projects is called:
A) Heavyweight project management.
B) Matrix project organization.
C) Profile management.
D) Project portfolio management.

47) The concept of project portfolio management holds that firms should:
A) Regard all projects as unified assets.
B) Manage projects as independent entities.
C) Focus on short-term strategic goals.
D) Focus on long-term constraints.

48) A project with the chance for a big payout may be funded if an important criterion is:
A) Cost.
B) Opportunity.
C) Top management pressure.
D) Risk.

50) Evaluating projects in terms of their strategic fit with existing project lines or their ability to augment the
current product family is known as:
A) Balance.
B) An open criterion.
C) Weighted criterion.
D) Complementarity.

51) Realignment describes:
A) The change in a project portfolio with an addition of a new project.
B) The shifting of project resources from one to another.
C) The change in strategy for a firm.
D) The annual recasting of all project managers.

52) A proactive project portfolio:
A) Is as simple as moving from one project opportunity to another project opportunity.
B) Is an integrated family of projects with a common strategic goal.
C) Is a collection of projects under the umbrella of single project manager carrying the title of portfolio
manager.
D) Is developed with respect to short-term operational concerns.

53) If an organization that currently is managing a vast and well-balanced portfolio of projects decides on a
new strategic direction, it will initially face the problem of:
A) Scarce resources.
B) A conservative technical community.
C) Out-of-sync projects and portfolios.
D) Unpromising projects.

54) A principal cause of portfolio underperformance is:
A) Conservative technical communities.
B) Government intervention.
C) Out-of-sync projects.
D) Scarce resources.

55) Project portfolio management is typically NOT used to balance:
A) Human and technical resources.
B) Risk and return.
C) Efficiently run projects and nonperformers.
D) Various families of projects.

56) Which of these is NOT a factor in successful project portfolio management?
A) Flexible structure and freedom of communication
B) Low-cost environmental setting
C) Emphasis on quality
D) Time-paced transition

57) Multiple project environments thrive on:
A) Multi-layered bureaucracy.
B) Rigid development processes.
C) Narrow communication channels.
D) Improvisation by project teams.

58) A firm is BEST served if its project portfolio:
A) Has a number of low-cost experimental prototypes.
B) Devotes significant resources to hit product “home runs.”
C) Aims to take the marketplace by storm regardless of future trends.
D) Represents narrowly concentrated efforts.

59) Successful firms use project portfolio planning routinely to:
A) Make quantum jumps from one product to another.
B) Develop products with long lead times and plan ahead.
C) Move as quickly as possible into new territory.
D) Move at glacial pace always within the same product line.

1) Which statement about scope management is BEST?
A) Scope management must take place during the conceptual development, full definition, execution, and
termination phases.
B) Project goals don’t matter in scope management as long as the budget is not exceeded.
C) Scope management is accomplished in a single step by any one project team member.
D) Scope management can begin once a project hits operational level.

2) The Scope Management chapter begins and ends with the quote, “It’s a dream until you write it down.
Then it’s:
A) Etched in stone.”
B) A scope statement.”
C) A documented dream.”
D) A goal.”

3) Which of these is NOT an element of project scope management?
A) Project champion
B) Scope statement
C) Project closeout
D) Control systems

4) Scope management for a project begins with:
A) A work package.
B) An organization breakdown structure.
C) A statement of goals.
D) A configuration statement.

5) Restrictions that affect project development are:
A) Problems.
B) Constraints.
C) Stop-limits.
D) Limitations

6) The cat-skinning project management team considers the many ways to accomplish their objective
before settling on one technique as part of their:
A) Information gathering step.
B) Need statement step.
C) Project objectives step.
D) Alternative analysis step.

7) There were conceivably an infinite number of courses he could take during his final semester, but since
he worked 8-5, Jake needed to take night classes. He also needed to ensure that the class was offered at
the Edmond campus rather than Midwest City, so he could get home in time for his favorite programs. This
whittled down the list of possibilities to Systems Analysis Design and Differential Equations. “Neither of
these courses is very attractive. I may have to rethink my priorities,” Jake wondered aloud. “The work
schedule and wrestling schedule are significant:
A) Scope statements.”
B) Alternatives.”
C) Constraints.”
D) Goals.”

8) Conceptual development for a project concludes with:
A) Project objectives.
B) Alternative analysis.
C) Project delivery.
D) Team dissolution.

9) One consequence of conceptual development that proceeds with a problem that is poorly understood is:
A) Problem restatement.
B) Cost overruns.
C) Problem clarification.
D) Task confusion.

10) Which statement about conceptual development is BEST?
A) A project goal of “significantly increase computer performance” is better than “improve processing speed
20%” because the team may exceed 20%.
B) It is vital that a best approach to solving a problem be locked in as soon as possible to save analysis
time downstream.
C) Conceptual development begins with the process of reducing the project’s overall complexity to a more
basic level.
D) Project goals should be optimistic to the point of excess.

11) The statement of work should contain:
A) Information on the key objectives for the project.
B) A brief and general description of the work to be performed.
C) Expected project outcomes.
D) All of these are elements of a statement of work.

12) A statement of work identifies:
A) A need.
B) A project organization.
C) Members of the project team.
D) Alternatives.

13) The description and scope section of a statement of work would contain statements regarding:
A) Environmental risks.
B) Termination of project information.
C) Expected benefits.
D) Major milestones.

14) Expected commitments from other departments in support of the project would most likely be detailed
in the:
A) Approach section of the SOW.
B) Risks and concerns section of the SOW.
C) Acceptance criteria section of the SOW.
D) Resource requirements section of the SOW.

15) A testing plan would be outlined in which section of a statement of work?
A) Acceptance criteria
B) Risks and concerns
C) Description and scope
D) Approach

16) The step that reflects the formal “go ahead” given to the project to commence once the scope definition,
planning documents, and other contractual documents have been prepared and approved is the:
A) Go ahead.
B) Send off.
C) Work authorization.
D) Work release.

17) In the case of projects developed for external clients, work authorization typically addresses:
A) Budget linkage.
B) Audit trail establishment.
C) Resource requirements.
D) Contractual obligations.

18) All projects are promised in terms of the specific functionality or performance criteria they will meet. The
key feature of the contractual documentation that specifies this functionality or criteria is the:
A) Contractual requirements.
B) Valid consideration.
C) Contracted terms.
D) Contractual performance.

19) The exchange of voluntary items in exchange for reciprocal commitment by another party that is
specified by the contractual documentation is:
A) The terms.
B) Valid consideration.
C) Reciprocity.
D) Fair and unencumbered.

20) The section of the contractual documentation that identifies what are the excusable delays, allowable
costs, and criteria for inspection is called the:
A) Bylaws.
B) Amendments.
C) Contracted terms.
D) Dissolution factors.

21) A project management firm that promises to do everything for a major project and hand over a fully
functional, ready-to-use deliverable is performing under a(n):
A) Umbrella contract.
B) All-inclusive contract.
C) Cost-plus contract.
D) Turnkey contract.

22) Which pair of statements is BEST?
A) Cost-plus contracts are prone to budget overruns while turnkey contracts are typically underbid by the
contractor.
B) Cost-plus contracts are prone to a budget surplus while turnkey contracts are typically underbid by the
contractor.
C) Cost-plus contracts are prone to a budget surplus while turnkey contracts are typically overbid by the
contractor.
D) Cost-plus contracts are prone to budget overruns while turnkey contracts are typically overbid by the
contractor.

23) Your professor moonlights to make ends meet during the summer months and has a knack for painting
houses. You agree to pay $500 over whatever the materials and equipment rental cost for the job and
delight in sipping lemonade in the shade watching your poor professor perform under a(n):
A) Cost-plus contract.
B) Lump-sum contract.
C) Time and material contract.
D) Fixed wage contract

24) The reporting frequency, report recipients, and content required during project execution is laid out by:
A) The organizational breakdown structure.
B) Scope reporting.
C) The information system architecture.
D) A need-to-know basis.

25) Updates on how the project is performing against milestones can be accomplished by issuing a report
containing:
A) S-curves.
B) Schedule status.
C) Earned value.
D) Technical performance.

26) A graphical display of costs against project schedule is called a(n):
A) S-curves.
B) Gantt chart.
C) Radar chart.
D) Budget plot.

27) An earned value report shows:
A) How much money has actually been spent so far on the project.
B) Slippages in performance measures for the work product.
C) The budgeted value of work performed.
D) Slippages in time against planned measures.

28) Any measurable, tangible, verifiable outcome, result, or item that must be produced to complete a
project or part of a project is a:
A) Product.
B) Deliverable.
C) Tangible.
D) Work product.

29) The organizational structure for the project team, including policies and procedures, is the:
A) Work breakdown structure.
B) Rules statement.
C) Scope statement.
D) Management plan.

30) Which of these scope statement steps creates the all-important bureaucracy for a project?
A) The management plan
B) The work breakdown structure
C) The scope baseline
D) The project goal criteria

31) The mountaineers all agreed that their quest to build a bridge between the two peaks of Mount
Kilimanjaro was a noble one, but they had no idea how long it would take to complete until they finished
their:
A) Project goal criteria.
B) Work breakdown structure.
C) Scope baseline.
D) Management plan.

32) The new Magic Pan coming soon to your area usually serves 20,000 customers in the first year of
operation. Construction plans include site selection, foundation, framing, finishing, egg-laying, and chicken
acquisition. The scope statement step that determines relationships among these steps, e.g. does the
chicken acquisition come before the egg laying, etc., is the:

33) Budget and schedule information for each activity in a project is contained in the:
A) Project goal criteria.
B) Management plan.
C) Work breakdown structure.
D) Scope baseline.

34) The final step in the process of systematically laying out all pre-work information is the creation of the:
A) Scope baseline.
B) Work breakdown structure.
C) Management plan.
D) Project goal criteria.

35) The PMBoK definition stating, “a process that sets a project’s scope by breaking down its overall
mission into a cohesive set of synchronous, increasingly specific tasks,” is for the:
A) Project plan.
B) Work breakdown structure.
C) Deliverable statement.
D) Scope expansion.

36) What are work breakdown structure elements that must be completed to conclude the project
deliverables?
A) Activities
B) Tasks
C) Work packages
D) Milestones

37) The lowest level in work breakdown structure contains the:
A) Atoms.
B) Activities.
C) Finite elements.
D) Work packages.

38) The highest level of work breakdown structure is the:
A) Project.
B) Deliverable.
C) Subdeliverable.
D) Work package.

39) The second level in work breakdown structure contains the:
A) Projects.
B) Deliverables.
C) Subdeliverables.
D) Work packages.

40) Which of these statements about subdeliverables is BEST?
A) Subdeliverables have durations of their own.
B) Subdeliverables consume resources.
C) Subdeliverables have direct assignable costs.
D) Subdeliverables summarize the outcomes of work packages.

41) The costs attached to subdeliverables:
A) Are the summary of the work packages that support it.
B) Are called phantom costs.
C) Should be subtracted directly from deliverable costs.
D) Are not recoverable unless explicitly stated in the work breakdown structure.

42) When a supporting document functions as a project control device throughout the project’s
development, it is NOT prepared in advance:
A) Due to time constraints.
B) As it is a dynamic document.
C) Since micromanaging can occur.
D) Because control devices are left to project completion.

43) When work is organized into cost control accounts:
A) The work no longer needs to be tracked by the project manager.
B) The subdeliverables become cost centers instead of profit centers for the project.
C) These are assigned to the units performing project activities.
D) These budgets can then be assigned back to the project manager’s department.

44) Project team members can identify who should be notified of task completion status by checking the:
A) Control account.
B) Linear responsibility chart.
C) Statement of work.
D) Monthly joint review report.

45) In order to allocate costs more precisely, a company will assign:
A) Bar codes to each activity.
B) Activity codes to each subdeliverable.
C) WBS codes to each activity.
D) Level 4 codes to each package element.

46) Organizational breakdown structure (OBS) allows companies to:
A) Assign the duties of tracking costs to the customer’s accounting function.
B) Circumvent the onerous task of work breakdown structure.
C) Issue a preliminary TPS report.
D) Define the work to be accomplished.

47 A project manager can identify personnel who will be directly responsible for each task in the project’s
development by using a(n):
A) Responsibility assignment matrix.
B) Milestone designation chart.
C) Merrill report.
D) Work package report.

48) Procedures that monitor emerging project scope against the original baseline scope are called:
A) Configuration control.
B) Design control.
C) Trend monitoring.
D) Document control.

49) A young professor becomes obsessed with the latest release of Halo and completely loses sight of his research commitment to his colleagues, falling hopelessly behind schedule and consuming 80% of the department’s computing budget. Addictive behavior notwithstanding, this sad tale would never have happened had:

50) Systems for monitoring the project’s scope, schedule, and costs during the design stage fall under the
heading of:
A) Configuration control.
B) Acquisition control.
C) Design control.
D) Specification control.

51) As the 80th change order floated across his desk, the project manager wished that he had kept the first
79. What money he had saved in scrap paper might well be lost in charges that could never be recouped
from the client. “What I need is better:
A) Trend monitoring,” muttered the manager.
B) Configuration control,” sighed the manager.
C) Specification control,” fumed the manager.
D) Document control,” whimpered the manager.

52) The framing crew would never know when it was time to order more $400 hammers without their fancy
new:
A) Acquisition control system.
B) Specification control system.
C) Configuration control system.
D) Design control system.

53) The homeowner lusted over a 36,000 BTU oven in his dream kitchen, but his contractor got a deal on a
20,000 BTU oven and installed it without a peep. Thanks to:
A) Acquisition controls, the homeowner ended up with the right oven.
B) Specification controls, the homeowner ended up with the right oven.
C) Design controls, the homeowner ended up with the right oven.
D) Oven controls, the homeowner ended up with the right oven.

54) The BEST time to establish reasonable controls is:
A) After a project is over.
B) At the end of a project.
C) At the start of a project.
D) When they are first needed during the project.

55) The project’s scope fixed at a specific point in time is the:
A) Scope.
B) Design.
C) Historical standard.
D) Baseline.

56) All pieces of a project must be developed and assembled to produce the final product functionality.
Designing, making, and assembling these components is the role of:
A) Configuration management.
B) Baseline scope control.
C) Systematic management.
D) Baseline configuration.

57) The stage of configuration management where the breakdown of the project to the necessary leel of
definition is identified as:
A) Configuration review.
B) Configuration identification.
C) Status accounting.
D) Configuration control.

58) The management of project changes is most effectively accomplished:
A) When project change needs arise.
B) When plans and project scope are first articulated.
C) Once closeout is complete.
D) During the configuration identification phase.

59) The primary action during a configuration review is to:
A) Develop a breakdown of the project to the necessary level of definition.
B) Identify the specifications of the components of the breakdown and of the total project.
C) Meet with all the project stakeholders to agree to the current project definition.
D) Change the specifications last obtained by a process change control to match what people think it
should be.

60) The status accounting step of configuration management functions primarily as:
A) A hierarchy.
B) Binding arbitration.
C) Cost control.
D) Memory.

61) If viewed from a flow standpoint, the stage of configuration management that has provision for variable
routing to the next step, depending on outcome at this stage, is:
A) Configuration control.
B) Configuration review.
C) Status accounting.
D) Configuration identification.

62) Project closeout documentation that can be used to predict trends, analyze feasibility, and highlight
problem areas for similar future projects is:
A) Post project analysis.
B) Historical records.
C) Financial closeout.
D) Post-mortem.

63) The ambitious sprinkler system project was finally over and it was hard to believe that it took only two
years. The project manager leaned back in his office chair and admired his emerald green lawn and flower
garden that was filling in nicely. He was amused by the birds that had gathered to bathe and drink at a
persistent puddle just outside his window, a harbinger of the first major repair of his own shoddy
workmanship. His review of receipts for the job was less entertaining; between trips to the local home
improvement store, consultations with plumbers, city inspectors, and some hired labor, he had sunk a small
fortune into his lawn. The manager’s:

64) Closeout documentation that follows a formal reporting structure, including analysis and
documentation of the project’s performance in terms of:
– cost,
– schedule adherence,
– technical specification performance

65) The windmills of Mykonos were lovely, so Lisa contracted with an architectural firm to build one in the
west pasture. Once the windmill had been built and was operational, the project team looked back at how
they had managed to stay on schedule and what budget variances existed along the way. The windmill was
pumping as promised, an honest two gallons per minute just as they had design it. Closeout documentation
of this type is considered:

66) Which step in project management requires project managers to consider the types of records and
reports they and their clients will require at the completion of the project?
A) Project closeout
B) Completion phase
C) Reporting
D) Planning

67) A priori consideration of information needs is performed:
A) Several years after a project is completed.
B) Before a project begins.
C) At the start of a project.
D) During the project.

 

Preview

 

Project Management MGM Quiz When you're Screening

NOTE: Please check the details before purchasing the document.

error: